Just a note, the "virgin" that applies directly to Mary (Luke 1:34, "And Mary said to the angel, 'How will this be, since I am a virgin?'", among other passages) is written in Greek, not Hebrew. Granted, there are some prophetic passages in the OT that use virgin (e.g. Isaiah 7:14, "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."), but just make sure everyone's on the same page when challenging dogma. Is the Greek word thought to be mistranslated as well?
