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So does that mean that it is no longer a zero-day after a day has passed? Or does it remain a zero-day because it first got released in the wild before vendors had any awareness of it?



Well, if you use a 0-day exploit to break into computer systems, but nobody discovers the hack, or they discover the hack but not the method used for the hack, I guess it remains a 0-day exploit...


If the vendor (loosely defined) is aware of it, but they can't fix it in a single day, then it becomes a 1-day, I suppose.


Given the typical lead-time for an article to appear after the vendor is notified, the news begins to spread, publications take notice, assign someone to write a story, and the story appears, then you're arguing that the term "zero day" should, practically speaking, never appear in the press.

I'm not sure that's a helpful definition. It's pedantic to the point of no longer applying to any real-world situation and thus sort of pointless.




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