A question is where these differences come from. One explanation is that the gender differences occur due to different upbringing as a child. Under this hypothesis, by the time they enter the workforce, men and women are significantly different. A different explanation is that entering the workforce, men and women are the same, but then they are treated differently within the workforce. Under this hypothesis, I would expect free market economics to have already resolved issues such as the wage gap.
On a different note, given the large population, it is likely that there is a non-zero, biologically driven, difference that is statistically significant, even if it is of such a small magnitude as to be irrelevent. In this case, any such difference is being overshadows by the non-negligible cultural influence, but it is always worth keeping in mind what statistics actually say.
On a different note, given the large population, it is likely that there is a non-zero, biologically driven, difference that is statistically significant, even if it is of such a small magnitude as to be irrelevent. In this case, any such difference is being overshadows by the non-negligible cultural influence, but it is always worth keeping in mind what statistics actually say.