Does any of those mutations produce fertile individuals, with both reproductive organs fully functional though? I don't know enough to answer, but I believe that's what the parent is asking.
What I'm saying is, from a biological perspective, isn't sex determined by the gametes (which as far as I known, are two), regardless of vestigial organs, number of chromosomes, etc.? I think that's what caused the confusion on the parent about existing more than one sex (reproductive role); of course, by that measure, infertility is undetermined as it plays no role in reproduction.
Totally agree with you. At least in humans, there are two very clearly defined reproductive roles. Test tubes and surgical procedures can interfere a bit, but you can't be "mostly" a gamete donor or "only somewhat" of a gamete receptor.
Some inter-sexed people are fertile, but I don't think that's relevant to this discussion unless you also declare infertile cis-gendered people to be an invalid gender.
