Benford's law applies to probability distributions which are (roughly) uniform on a logarithmic scale, and which span over several orders of magnitude.
If a manipulated process generated such a distribution then it would satisfy Benford's law.
However, it isn't clear to me apriori why election returns should satisfy Benford's law, so I'm unsure why this test is meaningful to begin with.
If a manipulated process generated such a distribution then it would satisfy Benford's law.
However, it isn't clear to me apriori why election returns should satisfy Benford's law, so I'm unsure why this test is meaningful to begin with.