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Man runs a motel.

Police find a meth lab in the motel. Some people die of drugs overdoses in the motel. Police claim to arrest drug dealers, drug users, prostitutes etc in and near the motel, and claim the owner not only does nothing to prevent these criminals but actively encourages the criminals.

Eventually they decide to seize the property (somehow) to prevent further crime.

Motel owner claims that crime, while high, is similar to other motels in the area. Owner claims that he's followed police advice and is doing his best to stop criminals using his property for crime.

A process with a potential for abuse that happens a lot in the US. Getting attention here, and now, because of the involvement of Ortiz.




The government appears to be able under current forfeiture law, to sue property that was involved in a crime. Such as a motel that was used to make meth. For example "US vs. Eight Thousand Eight Hundred and Fifty Dollars" http://www.law.cornell.edu/supremecourt/text/461/555


Wtf. Each and every time I think I finally got a fairly good understanding of America, I'm made aware of something like that.


Never seemed to make any sense to me. How can money be responsible for its use?


It can't, and it doesn't have civil rights (or other capabilities) to defend itself, which is why the government likes to sue it—it's an easy win for them.




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