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To be clear, I agree that that was a crime on the part of the agent, but I fail to see why that incriminates Wikileaks in any way.



Wikileaks hasn't been incriminated (here, at least).

While doing a personnel investigation, the Air Force said that female Subject was accused of communication with the enemy.

Saying that "the enemy" was Wikileaks, and that "enemy" means various nefarious things are both things that are being read into this, with much urging from Assange and his lawyer. The Air Force didn't even want to publicize this but it got released by a FOIA request; it's hard to say I was incriminating a third-party with communications intended to be private.

(I could well see that "communication with the enemy" refers to any dissemination of classified data that could end up in the hands of the enemy. Just what should count is probably a good debate to have, and I bet it's already been had since issues like this were around long before the Internet.)




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