He was in Afghanistan when they invaded. Even the Taliban admitted he was in the country. He fled to Pakistan later. And the US did in fact capture him using military force inside Pakistan.
I really don't understand how this question can come up, honestly. This is 1 + 1 = 2 stuff.
Strange they didn't have to kill 40k+ civilians in Pakistan to capture him, like in Afghanistan. Which would have been totally justified, like GP claims. So, why not?
I really don't understand how this question can come up, honestly. This is 1 + 1 = 2 stuff.