My understanding is that there were multiple waves of migration out of Africa, the first being around 2 million years ago.
The first waves were not of anatomically modern humans but Homo erectus and its contemporaries up into modern Georgia, then East into China, then eventually into Indonesia.
Then around 1 million years later, there was another migration of Homo erectus out into Southeast Asia along the coast through India and eventually into Vietnam and Malaysia.
This second migration seems to be what the paper is referencing and definitely the one that, at least 10 years ago, the anthropology community had the least confidence in. My understanding, again dated by a decade now, is that it was uncertain if hominoids entered Europe at that point or not.
Neanderthals left Africa 500,000 years later into Europe while Denisovans left at the same time into Asia ending up concentrated in Serbia.
Modern Humans don't show up until another 400,000 years after that (around 100,000 years ago) and don't leave Africa until 70,000 years ago. They also left Africa in multiple waves with 5 main ones spreading out across the globe.
"Neanderthals left Africa 500,000 years later into Europe while Denisovans left at the same time"
For most of the past 25 years there was a theory that Neanderthals and Denisovans were descended from Homo Heidelbergensis, in which case Neanderthals and Denisovans probably evolved in Europe or the Middle East. The oldest known Homo Heidelbergensis is maybe 1 millions years old and most of the early Homo Heidelbergensis were found in Europe, so it is assumed that Homo Heidelbergensis evolved in Europe.
Recently, many have argued that Neanderthals and Denisovans were not descended from Homo Heidelbergensis, but instead from some other species of humans that has not yet been discovered. But it remains likely that Neanderthals and Denisovans evolved outside of Africa.
The number of waves and the granulation of waves isn't set in stone as such; there's a pretty decent broad view from afar regarding early human, and a great deal of finer detail still up for debate.
top to bottom will give a good enough first overview and an idea of where uncertainly lies and references to chase for further debate.
Eg: Currently there's some hot debate on whether parts of the "coastal migration" to Australasia took place over inland routes within South East Asia - that's a matter of old coast lines at the time, inland cave shelters with datable bones, and a sparse game of chronological joind the estimated dots in space and time - it gets technical.
Apart from Antarctica - New Zealand seems to be the last large landmass to be settled in 1200 AD (see map linked above).
But even in NZ, there are some inconclusive claims of previous civilization. The gov has banned access and excavations to verify or refute the claims. One example:
Kind of looks natural to me, and if there were a civilization that made one wall like this I'd expect a lot more walls like it. That said, it seems worth investigating. Why would the New Zealand government want it covered up?
Scientists have, in fact, investigated it [1] and concluded it is a natural feature. Reading up on ancient-origins.net seems to suggest that it lets a lot of pseudoscience and conspiracy theories (ancient aliens and so on) creep in alongside credible articles.
If temperatures dropped during the onset of the Pleistocene. Then why would humans have migrated away from Africa to Europe? It seems to me that in Europe it would be even more cold.
The article suggests that this may have in part been due to the falling sea levels. Europe extended much further to the North to the point that Great Britain was surrounded by land. The gap between Europe and Africa was also close enough to allow for much easier crossings.
Early humans were likely always somewhat migratory animals as there was no way to preserve food for longer periods - grain agriculture was what allowed for permanent settlements and bureaucracy (i.e. long-term planning and resource allocation). They may have tended to the local vegetation because they would likely return in the future but it seems obvious that they'd also be on the lookout for new places while keeping track of known good spots in the past - even elephants travel between distant "watering holes".
In other words: it wasn't the cold that was the problem, it was the availability of resources, i.e. food. If the accessible parts of Europe had sufficient food to make them attractive for foraging and hunting, humans would eventually make the crossing and decide to stay and eventually move further into the continent. Note that we're not talking about events that happened over human lifetimes - the North Sea didn't drain overnight.
Early humans (or proto humans) might not know that it was warmer in the south or colder in the north, across vast areas. Some days are colder than others, even if you stand still. Add to this the effect of changing seasons through a year, some years being colder than others anyway. You could migrate North slowly as Winter turned to Summer. Then camp for the winter and migrate back. And their migrations might have moved slightly further north year by year. They would have to track temperatures from winter to winter, without a calendar, thermometer, notebook, pen, map, compass and perhaps even an enquiring mind.
I don't think that humans decided to move to a colder place or even realised that their movement was taking them somewhere cooler.
Ultimately, they would have followed their food wherever it went. You might be better off asking why a caribou herd migrated further North. Who knows? Better grass? Less competition? Fewer predators? Lower sea level opening a path to new grassland?
If human populations expanded at a slow rate of 20 miles per 100 years, then from 1.1 million to 0.9 million years ago (200,000 years) they would have travelled 40,000 miles.
This is indeed migration, but not as we think of it today. Such migrations could have been blocked by oceans or high mountains, and were essentially like animal migrations.
The notion that bad environment caused migration seems very dubious.
What causes migration is the ability to migrate: that is, that new areas have environments in which the organisms can survive and reproduce. Decline in habitability of previously occupied regions is neither necessary nor useful for this to happen.
I'm not disputing glaciation had an effect, it's just that a decline in habitability of where the hominids were living was not an effect that can be pointed to as a cause of migration. If anything, there should be more outmigration from highly habitable areas than from less habitable ones. That's because any area quickly fills up to the limit of its carrying capacity, and the highly habitable area will then have more inhabitants to diffuse out.
The assertion is that change in environmental conditions allowed for migration:
They then pointed out that evidence in past research showed hominin habitation all across Eurasia started approximately 900,000 years ago, which coincides with the onset of the first Pleistocene ice age. As the ice age began, ocean levels would have dropped, allowing hominins an easier route from Africa.
Another assertion is that habitability had declined to the point where humans had almost become extinct:
Two recently published analyses make cases for severe bottlenecking of human populations occurring in the late Early Pleistocene, one case at about 0.9 Mya based on a genomic analysis of modern human populations and the low number of hominin sites of this age in Africa and the other at about 1.1 Mya based on an age inventory of sites of hominin presence in Eurasia.
A further assertion is that decline in habitability was specificly due to aridity:
We suggest that the best available data are consistent with the Galerian hypothesis expanded from Europe to Eurasia as a major migration pulse of fauna including hominins in the late Early Pleistocene as a consequence of the opening of land routes from Africa facilitated by a large sea level drop associated with the first major ice age of the Pleistocene and concurrent with widespread aridity across Africa that occurred during marine isotope stage 22 at ~0.9 Mya
It's your assertion that:
> a decline in habitability of where the hominids were living was not an effect that can be pointed to as a cause of migration.
and I can see no reason why you would make this claim.
I have already explained the logic behind the claim.
The things you quote there do not justify a claim that reduction in habitability would cause migration. They do justify a claim that an increase in habitability of nearby areas could cause migration to those areas. The hominids cannot diffuse into an area in which they cannot survive as a population (or rather, they can, but they just die out, so the spread stops), but if the area became sufficiently more habitable then those diffusing in could then sustain a population there and act as a base for further diffusion.
The Med was created by long-term tectonic forces,
which closed the sea at Gibraltar, about 7 million years ago. The whole thing dried out, leaving salt deposits on the lowest dusty plains (like Great Salt Lake, Dead Sea, Aral Sea today). Enough dust, dirt and seasonal river inflow, covered the salt in sedimentary layers.....
About 6 million years ago, Gibraltar was breached by rising sea levels, and flooded the Balearic (W. Med) basin, up to the line Italy-Sicily-Tunisia.
Very shortly afterwards (months < 2 years) the water breached the high ground immediately south of Sicily, creating the subsea Noto Canyon, and filling the eastern Med.
P.S. Interesting final comment - the Black Sea was probably not filled by a similar dramatic flood through the Bosphorus. Alluvial structures and fans in the Black Sea floor, show that it silted up from the north, and almost certainly overflowed the Bosphorus from the north, which is why the Bosphorus is relatively narrow - not the whole Med carving wide straits, but a freshwater trickle out from the silted Black Sea.
P.P.S. Also note this contradicts some imagined historical basis for the Gilgamesh and Biblical floods being in the Black Sea (in the direction of what is now called Mt. Ararat). Those tales are much more likely to refer to Mesopotamian floods of the Tigris or Euphrates, perhaps triggered by breaching of earthquake-induced rockslides that temporarily blocked one of the rivers. We can now date and locate a specific episode like this in ancient China 4,000 years ago:
Thats better. If you want go get even better, scroll down to the "References" section and follow from there to the primary sources. Wikipedia alone is okay-ish but is often faulty because it accepts journalistic pieces (including some YT videos) as source.
That's kind of like saying the internet is not reliable. Don't post links. Ok. So now what?
Only studies, only peer-reviewed studies?
Only peer-reviewed studies published by qualified sources?
Only videos based on peer-reviewed studies published by approved sources, that have passed a committees on the non-biased use of artistic representations of special effects in entertainingly but scientifically accurate facts?
This whole, nothing is real, there is no truth, is really out of control.
"financially incentivized" -> Welcome to the world.
You can search HN and find plenty of arguments that scientific reporting by all major journals are biased and no longer factual and are just clickbait.
Researchers have 'clickbait' studies because they are "financially incentivized" to get funding.
You are drawing the line at YouTube, others draw the line at CNN, others draw the line at freaking 'Nature'.
Now AI is generating scientific papers, I think we should be worried about how we determine 'factual' sources across the board.
Lots of science is reported on YT and it is fine. You can't take a study in 'Nature' and say it is fine, but then if that study is reported in a video on YT, now it is in question. The video on the flood above was fine, there was nothing incorrect in it, why is it 'wrong' by being on YT?
Maybe a % of garbage rating? But who does the judging?
To that point, HN commenters are also directly incentivized to say certain things because of the way the voting works. You can get a lot of upvotes just by seeming profound (especially if you have a reputation) or "rational" without being either of those things because few people have the time and energy to dissect comments beyond first impressions. Bonus points if you can cite a study even if it does not actually say what you claim or is otherwise dubious (because after all, dismissing it based on the author would be an "ad hominem", right?).
The problem HN has with YT content creators being motivated by certain factors is not that they're less trustworthy but that they're tacky. Like Reddit (a social link sharing site with commenting and a heavily polarized community) which is nothing like HN (a social link sharing site with commenting and a heavily polarized community).
I can understand why ancient people would migrate west or east since the sun movement; rise or set would draw them there. What would spur people to move north or south other than hunting animals? If animals I'd expect north for a bit then south again (or vice versa below the equator).
This paper seems to be referencing the migration of Homo Erectus which occurred earlier and is generally agreed upon (though the specifics are still widely debated, thus the paper).
Multiregional Evolution posits that modern Humans evolved directly from these distributed pockets of Homo Erectus, while the competing Out of Africa theory suggests that anatomically modern humans evolved once in Africa and then spread to the rest of the world, outcompeting the prior hominoid species as they went.
My understanding is that the MRE hypothesis was largely discarded in favor of Out of Africa based on genetic data in the early 00s. Studies show that all humans share mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), Y-chromosome DNA, and autosomal DNA ancestors which is not what you'd expect if humans evolved separately multiple times.
The big compromise of the model which has emerged in recent years is Out of Africa with Admixture. Basically saying that Homo Sapiens didn't just outcompete other local hominoid branches but interbred with them to a meaningful extent. This was originally not well supported but there's a growing body of work to support it and I believe the academic community is coming around. You see this most strongly with Neanderthals in Europe, for instance.
There's no compromise model. Admixture with archaic hominins is widely accepted these days, but it's simply a small asterisk on top of OOA for essentially everyone outside China (where MRE remains popular).
The honest interpretation of DNA evidence is that Cro-Magnon man mixed with the Neanderthals and Denisovans and then likely migrated into Africa, not out of it.
The ultimate goal of humans / or any other sentient group that secedes us is to escape the heat death of the universe. Like it or not that's what life is for. We're escape artists.
I forget who, but in the early 90s a famous SF author was asked by a fan if he thought he was put on earth to write his books. He replied that he was put on earth to play Sid Meier's Civilization, writing books was what he did to pay the bills.
It is kind of funny to think of things in that context, because it's absolutely true. This planet will eventually face another mass extinction event, like the countless to have come prior - and we're well overdue. We may yet escape that, yet eventually most of this entire solar system will be overcome by the sun as it cools and expands outward. And we may yet escape that. But then there's undoubtedly yet new discoveries we'll make to show how galaxies also eventually die. And then of course there's the issue of finally dealing with the universe itself. Though by that point, if history is any guide, we'll have long since discovered that even the universe itself is far from the final act in this peculiar game.
I've always considered this a much more motivating principle than all the world's religions combined (though Buddhism's take on suffering is informative). Survival of sentience beyond the death of the universe. It would be nice if my sentience is part of it, but at a minimum it gives a nice middle finger to nihilist absurdity.
Well, exploiting their resources for hundreds of years, then granting them "independence" while keeping a financial and economic stranglehold along with ill-fated financial "aid" projects offering cheap loans to build an export-focused penny economy and bringing in foreign companies rather than focusing on local sustainability and then bombing them or assassinating their leaders (or installing dictators) when you don't like the direction they're headed is a bit more complex than "bad policy".
Though to be fair, a lot of that also applies to South America and the Middle East.
The first waves were not of anatomically modern humans but Homo erectus and its contemporaries up into modern Georgia, then East into China, then eventually into Indonesia.
Then around 1 million years later, there was another migration of Homo erectus out into Southeast Asia along the coast through India and eventually into Vietnam and Malaysia.
This second migration seems to be what the paper is referencing and definitely the one that, at least 10 years ago, the anthropology community had the least confidence in. My understanding, again dated by a decade now, is that it was uncertain if hominoids entered Europe at that point or not.
Neanderthals left Africa 500,000 years later into Europe while Denisovans left at the same time into Asia ending up concentrated in Serbia.
Modern Humans don't show up until another 400,000 years after that (around 100,000 years ago) and don't leave Africa until 70,000 years ago. They also left Africa in multiple waves with 5 main ones spreading out across the globe.