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Wouldn't you assume that the implicit context of a non-world-wide forum such as a news site was the USA, if almost every article you had previously seen from that forum was covering social or political issues in the USA?

Here's their top (place-specific) headlines right now: Tucker Carlson+Putin (US/RU); Alejandro Mayorkas (US); Trump/Taylor Swift (US); Neo-Nazi concerts (EU)




you describe implicit bias and it's effect and it's cause.

GP is surprised the article doesn't confirm their implicit bias.

and then GP misattributes the surprise to "today's despicable journalism"??

nono. tons of quality journalism is fine. please go and think about your implicit bias.

just to be sure we talk about the same thing

https://implicit.harvard.edu/implicit/takeatouchtest.html


Ok, that's great that you're using a word for it. I could not possibly care any less.

Why is it bad to assume that a US-centric site is writing a US-centric article when they put "feds" in the title?

Why does there being an implicit bias towards expecting a US-centric site to produce US-centric articles, mean that the journalism is not misleading?

It doesn't. It is misleading. It is clickbait. You are defending the indefensible.




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