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I can’t access the article but how do they account for the fact that high minimum wage and good social safety nets in Western Europe results in lower participation in the workforce from people with lower economic productivity?



> but how do they account for the fact that high minimum wage and good social safety nets in Western Europe results in lower participation in the workforce from people with lower economic productivity?

Before you ask "why", ask "if". Lots of European countries, including the UK, Germany, France, and the Netherlands have a higher workforce particpation rate than the US.

https://data.oecd.org/emp/labour-force-participation-rate.ht...




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