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‘Fair’ and ‘reasonable’ in this case.

As to the second question, feel free to browse my comment history.




on comment history: I looked at the first four pages.

the only really relevant ones I saw were about attorney-client privilege, where you were 100% right. I saw nothing much about antitrust.

"fair" and "reasonable" definitions probably suffer because there aren't that many antitrust cases tried, period.


Apologies, been too busy posting apparently. I did read the actual Sherman act (and provided links) recently, and experience wise I’ve been in management and senior leadership at several FAANGs in the past where this particular situation was a real and present ongoing concern. Including the one being targeted in this case.

So I’ve had all the training, worked with some talented attorneys, and been directly involved in related decisions - though not the ones being called into question here.


ok. those are two words that are deliberately left up to the judge & jury to decide. Trying to define them would just end up being circular.


So one could only know after it had been ruled on?

Which is by definition after it had occurred. Which is my point on retroactive.


No, your point is wrong.

Jurisprudence is about establishing consistent interpretations of those words. The point of "legal certainty" is that an ordinary citizen can predict what will and won't be judged fair and reasonable. "Courts have ruled" is what you go by. The Supreme Court in whatever country is the final judge of that.

If your point is that it's inconsistent, that's trivially true. Human beings are involved.

After this exchange, I thought of a use that's been reduced to one syllable: FRAND, for "fair, reasonable, and non-discriminatory."


And yet, we have “I know it when I see it” [https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/I_know_it_when_I_see_it], to quote Justice Stewart, no?

In this thread, for instance, when asked what unreasonable thing Google was doing, no one has an answer apparently. Let alone, alternatives.

Same with Fair vs Unfair.

So when it gets to the courts, and some line gets drawn - many people will get surprised, because what they thought was illegal/legal will not be the case.

And they were not likely unreasonable or wrong before hand either.

It’s not literal (as in de jure) ex-post facto of course, but it’s pretty close to de-facto.

Frankly, it’s awfully similar to the SEC’s handling of crypto regulation (and the confusion and BS resulting from it).

Have a vague enough rule that almost anything could apply. Refuse to provide any guidance or enforce it consistently. Come down on someone you don’t like later (after they’ve been doing it for decades), and claim they’ve been violating it the whole time and they should have known (somehow).

It may be legal (or not, we’ll find out), but it doesn’t seem just.


"I know it when I see it" was about obscenity.

As for what Google is or isn't doing wrong: the prosecution has to lay that out. I would think the opening statement would have said that, but I didn't read it. If it was really weak, Google would have moved for a dismissal or directed verdict.




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