If you start with the presumption that anti-discrimination laws already exist, then you may see this law as merely performative -- it didn't outlaw anything that was actually permitted prior.
But it could also be that such a redundant law is part of an broader acculturation process, and so has more cultural, rather than legal value.
But... caste based employment discrimination is (arguably in court) permitted in the US. Discrimination protections are only for categories specified and caste isn't specified.
But it could also be that such a redundant law is part of an broader acculturation process, and so has more cultural, rather than legal value.