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Bayes Theorem isn't totally at the heart of Bayesian v non-Bayesian statistics. Bayes Theorem can still be true if you're in a strictly frequentist framework.



Bayes Theorem can still be true if you're in a strictly frequentist framework.

Can?? When is it not true? It's a theorem, after all.


Nitpick much?

I meant more along the lines of when the assumptions aren't met, e.g. P(B) == 0.

Or, where unitarity in physics isn't met:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unitarity_(physics)




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