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GDPR 49/1a explicitly states possible workarounds (https://gdpr-info.eu/art-49-gdpr/):

"In the absence of an adequacy decision pursuant to Article 45(3), or of appropriate safeguards pursuant to Article 46, including binding corporate rules, a transfer or a set of transfers of personal data to a third country or an international organisation shall take place only on one of the following conditions:

    a. the data subject has explicitly consented to the proposed transfer, after having been informed of the possible risks of such transfers for the data subject due to the absence of an adequacy decision and appropriate safeguards;"
Does someone here know why does this apparently seem not to apply? Couldn't FB just ask for a consent?



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