Maybe I just don't understand why this is a big mystery. Suppose you have a range of numbers from 1 to some value between 1 and 100. If that value is picked randomly, you have 8/10 chance of including the teens, 7/10 chance of including the twenties, etc. until you have a 1/10 chance of including the eighties, and an increasingly low chance of including the nineties. Then you choose a number from that range - what are the chances it begins with 1? Far greater than if it began with 9, since numbers that begin with 1 are included 8/10 of the time.
Does this make any sense? Is there something I've missed?
Does this make any sense? Is there something I've missed?