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I'd argue that any significant wealth inequality constitutes a market distortion. It undermines the "wisdom of the crowd" that underpins capitalism.



But it has nothing to do with inheritance as wealth inequality would exist even before inheritance.


It does have something to do with inheritance. Inheritance directly causes wealth inequality because some people inherit money while others don't (and the amounts inherited vary widely). It's not the only mechanisms which causes wealth inequality, but it is one of them.




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