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EU law supersedes local law. So if your country one would prohibit such actions, EU law would take precedence and allow it.



I may be wrong but I was under the impression that local law would have to be harmonized to comply with it in this case anyway. So at that point you have no contradiction of the two. That the local law would diverge instead sounds highly hypothetical.


"EU law" can refer to several different things.

As far as I understand, this is a ruling about Council Directive 91/250/EEC. A directive is like a template from the EU that gets copied into local laws. So there is no distinction between local an EU law here.

https://ec.europa.eu/info/law/law-making-process/types-eu-la...


In practice the enforcement of laws happens at the national level, and EU precedence doesn't always bridge the gap between theory and practice.




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