Proton logged IPs in response to Swiss court order and handed over that data after the order was received. They do not log IPs otherwise. And bear in mind, the specific request in question here had the involvement of the French state as well.
How is this a bad faith argument? Proton's claim was they didn't log IPs and then it turns out that in certain cases they do – regardless of the reason, they reneged on their claim.
Because the way it was phrased might imply that Proton had always been logging all IPs, despite their claim, when in reality the breach was of a much smaller scope than that. They only logged IPs for a particular user after a particular legal demand was made, and not otherwise (as far as I know).
