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Consonant v is pronounced as w in modern English. Vowel v is pronounced as “oo” as in book. So “virus” in Latin would be pronounced “wiroos”.

It’s really a pet peeve of mine when I hear people pronounce Latin words starting with v and using the modern English v. It’s pronounced as w.




> It’s really a pet peeve of mine when I hear people pronounce Latin words starting with v and using the modern English v. It’s pronounced as w.

It's a little more complicated. The Romans didn't distinguish the sounds. But that doesn't mean they always produced a sound that you would recognize as W. Sometimes they did, sometimes not. You can observe the same effect easily in modern languages with the same non-distinction -- for example, in modern Mandarin, 问 formally begins with a W sound, but in practice often begins with what I hear as a V.

(For extra interest, contrast Old English, in which -- like modern Mandarin -- /f/ and /w/ were phonemes while /v/ was not, but -- unlike Mandarin -- [v] was a variety of /f/, not of /w/.)


Ah, so they did indeed use the same letter for two distinct sounds. Makes sense, thanks!


They used the same letter for two sounds in the sense that it had a consonantal use and a vowel use. But they did not, themselves, perceive the two sounds as being different sounds. They are, to the Romans, one sound in two different contexts.

Quoting Vox Latina:

> There is also a much-quoted anecdote of Cicero's, which tells how, when Marcus Crassus was setting out on an ill-fated expedition against the Parthians, a seller of Caunean figs was crying out 'Cauneas!'; and Cicero comments [...] that it would have been well for Crassus if he had heeded the 'omen', viz. 'Caue ne eas'; this hardly makes sense unless, as we presume, the [consonantal] u of caue was similar to the [vocalic] u of Cauneas. A parallel case is provided by Varro's etymology of auris from auere

(The book is accurate in representing the Latin spelling as being identical for the consonant and the vowel; in fact they used V and U is a much later invention. Perhaps the book felt English speakers would have more trouble accepting V as a vowel than U as a consonant.)


> But they did not, themselves, perceive the two sounds as being different sounds.

This makes sense, thanks. I guess we generally don't perceive the different sounds in our languages, like an English speaker generally won't perceive the difference between t͟hə and t͟hē (https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/the for audio).


For what it's worth, the sounds really are similar. The technical term for W [w] and Y [j] is "semivowels" (or "glides"); they are pronounced like vowels with no obstruction of airflow.




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