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I am not a chemist nor a psychiatrist, so I know next-to-nothing about any of this. However, I have on occasion read various reports on trace pharmaceutical presence in drinking water supplies (e.g., http://www.cbsnews.com/stories/2008/03/10/health/main3920454...) -- clearly the amounts are too small to have acute effects, but, taken over the course of an individual's life? Especially in the earliest stages of childhood? Is it a possible contributor towards this "epidemic"?

I know there are a few HN folks better versed in this kind of stuff. I'd love to hear why those reports are bunk, or why it doesn't work that way. Just curious.




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