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It’s surprising to the OP that failing to pay the statement is being treated like a chargeback. That could only happen with a first party card.



It’s not. There isn’t enough detail to determine whether the retail part of Apple was able to successfully post a charge for clawing back trade in value but then noticed the underlying account was revolving or whether OP just saw a hold which didn’t go through. If going out of a revolving status was sufficient due to fancy first party integration, why would OP have to email retail to let them know to run the charge again?

In addition, if that was indeed the setup, the email would have to include disclosures about being an attempt to collect debt which they did not. And they would likely need to come from the bank and not Apple Payments Receivables.

Finally, people report the same issue with PayPal.




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