According to https://www.worldometers.info/coronavirus/ per-1M total cases in US: 18k; in Spain (highest of EU large countries): 9k. About 2x difference not in US favor.
All-time total case numbers from EU countries aren't that meaningful because pretty much all the countries that experienced massive, hospital-overwhelming outbreaks also massively undertested during them compared to the US during its outbreak. I know that in particular Italy and the UK were more or less only testing people who were hospitalized for Covid during the bulk of it. It looks like Spain may have done a little better, which might explain why they reported so many cases compared to others.
Partly this is because of the timing of the outbreaks, and partly it's because the US ramped up testing to an extent that hasn't really been replicated elsewhere. So you'd likely run into similar issues comparing New York case numbers with anywhere else in the country due to their big outbreak being earlier, or with comparing the current surge in cases in Europe with the first one.
OK. You're looking at total cases; thisisliff is looking at mortality. So Spain had more people die, but the US had more people get it. So, 1) the US has a healthier population, 2) the US has a better healthcare system, 3) the US did a better job of detecting the disease among those with less severe cases.
1 or 2 support your position; 3 doesn't (because we don't have accurate data to tell whether it spread more in Spain). And we don't have enough data (that I have seen) to tell the difference between 1, 2, and 3.
So I don't know where we are. But you did in fact have data to support your position, and (since the question was the spread of the virus, not the mortality) you were citing the correct column in the reports.
