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> if you think that states inherently have the right to their power.

Why would I think that?

I'm saying that from the violence monopoly everything else is upheld by a first principle approach. If the state is overthrown the violence monopoly is either upheld by a new group, or you have no governing state.




Do you think people have the right to use violence for self defense? If so, who can people defend themselves from? Who can't they defend themselves from?


I don't condone anything. It is simply a definition that is used. I found this that explains it way better:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monopoly_on_violence




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