Do we know yet whether the clusters of fatalities among families are due to higher exposure rates or some genotypic susceptibility to the worst effects of the illness?
Or is that just that the family clusters are good news copy (ugh) and over-represented?
Spouses wouldn't necessarily share any genetic susceptibility yet there are plenty of stories of husband and wife pairs dying. Whether these stories are over-represented, like most areas of "proof", is pretty much impossible to say for certain at this point.
Or is that just that the family clusters are good news copy (ugh) and over-represented?