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my suspicion is that the out of Africa theory was promoted since it was more PC. Nowadays the "scientific theories" are all political.



Nah, it had nothing to do with PC. Back then, PC was about labels: "disabled" (they tried to get "differently enabled" to stick!) vs. "handicapped," "little people" vs. "midgets" and stuff like that. You were even supposed to say "queer" instead of "gay," and some were just starting to use "gender" in non-grammatical contexts like referring to a person's "gender" (which was look-it-up-in-a-textbook incorrect back then).


Out of Africa feels less PC to me, but I won't pretend to understand the rationale behind what is and isn't considered PC a lot of the time. But I agree with GP: we have relatively few DNA samples and try to draw pretty big generalizations between them. Ituitively, I would expect patterns of migration in and out of Africa and all the continents to be far more complex than 1-time events from which entire populations then developed complete independently.

edit: On a related note, my siblings' DNA test results say that they're something like 4% Native American, yet we have very reliable documentation of pure British genealogy back on all lines almost all the way back to the 1500s. Very unlikely to actual have a modern link. I'm sure the companies are likely overplaying the similarity more than anthropologists would, but am I to conclude that I have a closer link to Native Americans than other random samples from Europe?


> I won't pretend to understand the rationale behind what is and isn't considered PC a lot of the time.

It's whatever opinion/theory the person speaking disagrees with.


The poster clearly said that so that they can stay on topic, not sure we need to derail the main conversation to air personal grievances.


The DNA tests just look at haplogroups and mtDNA lineages etc. to make _very_ broad generalizations about what population set some of your ancestors _may_ have belonged to.

It's more likely that at some point in the last 15,000 years someone in your lineage had a child with someone with some Siberian background way far back.


What if one of your ancestors cheated on their spouse? Isn't that possible?


There weren't a lot of Native Americans emigrating to the British Isles pre-1800, east India, or Zambia, but sure anything's possible.


And how exactly is it more PC? Please enlighten us.


I'm not stating any claim to truth here, but which one sounds more pc? Caucasoids diverged from negroids 100k years ago. Or, Caucasoids diverged from negroids 2 million years ago.


You can look at the data yourself, it's not hidden.

Also, the classical meanings of terminology like "negroid" or "caucasoid" doesn't really map to genetics. My personal experience is that they're almost exclusively used by people who aren't familiar with modern understandings of human evolution. There are a lot of cranks talking about it, so it's often best to avoid archaic terminology that might get you mistakenly grouped with them.


I think accusing something of being PC implies it's not actually correct. So if you're saying one of these is more PC, that's a claim that it's less factual. Otherwise gravity is PC, 1 + 1 = 2 is PC.


Neither? It's really hard to understand how one would sound more "PC" than the other.


I can't imagine how stupid I would have to be to not comprehend this statement.




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