In my view, there is no situation in which binding arbitration should be an enforceable term in any kind of consumer agreement. In fact, I’m struggling to think of any situation where it would be applicable for any other agreement either, outside of international treaties. What’s the legitimate case for these terms?
Exactly, arbitration can be the starting point but making it the only possible action is just crazy and MUST be illegal
Furthermore, it is bad business to hide behind any clause, period. They could just call them, tell them that there was a minor accident and that they can have the car with 5% discount. I'm pretty sure if they didn't agree there would be plenty more people buying the car with such a discount and a fixed fender bender damage
