He wasn't actually that way though. They mistook notions of brotherly love which are not homosexual to something homosexual. There are no ancient sources that even allude to that. Just modern scholars projecting their own fantasies as usual.
Or simply that maybe there wasn't such a big distinction between being very close to a same-sex friend without any sexual relationship and being close and experimenting/enjoying each other bodies whenever people partied/had some good time. That is, if people back then didn't really see anything wrong with beautiful/healthy (same sex or not) friends enjoying what their bodies had to offer then the strong distinction that we draw today between those 2 cases was much more blurry back then and not something to be talking about much.
Do you have any evidence to the contrary or are you just saying that it's equally possible either was happening?
Even if there's strong support to say Alexander never pursued any homosexual relationships there's such a thing as artistic license and historically based movies are riddled with inaccuracies for whatever reason, and that's perfectly fine, they aren't advertising themselves as documentaries.
The ancient Greeks and Romans to a lesser extent institutionalized what would probably be called pedophilia\statutory rape\exploitation today. Pop historians ignore the usual age/power dynamics and use the fact that they were homosexual relationships to argue for a mythical golden age where people supposedly had the exact same gender politics as 21st century San Fransicians before those rotten Christians came around and spoiled everything, then they accuse the earlier generation of historians that ignored this area of revisionism.
