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If someone other than the child can waive those rights, then they never had rights[0] in the first place.

0: Or, more pedantically, the rights that are inalienable to them by virtue of being a person were never not violated. Or, more comprehendibly, they never had acknowledgement and enforcement[1] of those rights by the legal system.

1: I assume "children do have [acknowledgement and enforcement of their preexisting] rights" is what dgzl intended to convey.




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