At 1948 the US had around 25% women in the work force. By 1973 that number is around 50%. The article say that wages increased proportionally with production between 1948 to 1973, and only after 1973 started to drop.
There is just no relation between those two graphs that support the claim that that one caused the other.
https://ourworldindata.org/female-labor-supply
At 1948 the US had around 25% women in the work force. By 1973 that number is around 50%. The article say that wages increased proportionally with production between 1948 to 1973, and only after 1973 started to drop.
There is just no relation between those two graphs that support the claim that that one caused the other.