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I didn't write a logical fallacy at the end or purport to have written one. I think you may have misread my comment. Can you elaborate? I think I wrote exactly what I intended to write. I gave an example of how someone can make statements that logically imply a statement without explicitly having written said statement.

EDIT: Yes, I need to change a word. Thank you.




Cool, glad my note was helpful.

BTW, the logical fallacy I was referring to is this version (which is definitely not what you wrote or intended, it just came to mind reading it):

All men are mortal.

Socrates is mortal.

Therefore, Socrates is a man.




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