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does genocide perpetrated in colonial possessions count?



What "colonial possessions" were held by western democratic capitalist governments?


Britain used to rule over half of the world, France had some in Africa - like Algeria; Belgium had Congo, the Netherlands had a few colonies some time ago. Not to mention the colonies of Spain, Germany when these countries were not quite as democratic as they are now, but democracy is a continuum, isn't it?


They were not democratic at all. Clearly you know nothing about the history of these countries.

Universal enfranchisement in the UK happened only after WW1, with more than 90% of the population unable to vote for the whole history of "voting". And germany was just simply a dictatorship.

In 1800 90% of all of europe were farmers. The political class to even create a political system was tiny.

Democracy is rule by the people. Votes among feudal lords for which is the most powerful is not democracy.

You made a claim about two political systems: USSR's communism and western democratic capitalism.

If you're going to equivocate any old political system with any other then the claim to "convergence" is incoherent. I'm not even sure what "covergence" means when we're equivocating 19th Germany dictatorship, democratic capitalism, and USSR communism.

"Convergence" is severely under-evidenced. And my original claim is only ever-more evidenced: it is only possible to imagine our present system of government "converging" to mass murder upon some resentful delusion.


Well the Soviet Union of the seventies was a quite different place from that of the thirties, if you mind. Systems change over time.




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