First, by writing “just one person’s cash”, it is automatic to infer you consider this representative. I assert that it is not, and furthermore that if it were even close then the criminal economy would vastly exceed the non-criminal one.
Second, look at the date on that and tell me, with a straight face, that they didn’t use any cryptocurrencies. If they really did have $22bn, perhaps even if they only had $22m, I expected they used a dozen forms of currency they couldn’t even name.
I am not saying “worse”, I am saying “superset”. On the basis that all crimes that can occur with cash have an equivalent that can happen with cryptocurrencies but not vice versa — you cannot force someon else’s computer to forge coins for you, and high-value transactions have rules against cash in places that don’t have rules against cryptocurrencies.
I do not understand how you consider you response to be relevant, however.
How you can even claim that with a straight face is beyond me. Here is just one person's cash usage.