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Can't a Turing machine emulate a digital circuit in polynomial time? Then either they've proven that P=NP, or they're full of it.



Supposedly it's analog, but the Aaronson article linked by others gets into why that doesn't help either.


I see. The page mentions "digital" a few times, but I guess they're either only referring to part of the machine, or are using the term unconventionally.




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