My point was that from the information in the article that isn't actually clear; it is like when people say that condoms are X% effective as a contraception technique, and so people assume that means that condoms have an X% failure rate, but what they really mean is that "couples who report using condoms as their primary means of contraception have an X% success rate at avoiding pregnancy". While it is interesting from a clinical perspective as to whether "sending a child home and telling them to floss by themselves" is a working strategy or not, it would be taking into account "children don't really floss" and doesn't tell us if an adult who actually knows they are flossing (such as an adult who actually knows they are using the condom every time) has a particular success rate.
