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You say things like "investor experiences a real loss of assets (decreased net worth) whereas an unemployed person merely ceases monetary gain" and say my logic is terrible? The investor, in most cases, lost some number in a computer somewhere. The employee may lose his home. How can you possibly suggest that the investor lost more? In fact, if he's properly diversified it is possible that while this investment failed, he made extra somewhere else.

If you think the investors losses are more damaging to the market as a whole I still disagree. The employee was likely injecting most of their income right back into the economy. An investor is probably just buying stock from other stock holders (much safer way to make money than a business venture). Unless the stock holder is the company, this is just money changing hands between rich people, i.e. zero gain for the economy.




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