Look, man, there's a reason this thread is all the way at the bottom of the page. If you actually think that your "literal definition of profit" (that any returned Y in the future, minus X loaned now, exceeds 0) is at all meaningful in a world with inflation, risk of default, and the commonly accepted practice of charging interest, I don't know what else to say.
Please see any [1] of [2] these [3] to understand why it isn't as simple as "Y - X > 0", considering things like where the repayments are coming from, comparing the nominal annualized return to Treasury bond rates, all the fraud that will never be accounted for, etc., etc. Even pro-bailout articles [4] have to include weasel phrases like "on a risk-adjusted basis, even [such and such proposed Y - X] isn’t that big a profit, given the huge downside the government had," speaking directly to my point of how it's hard to properly account for risk, which is what any other lender would have done. Arguably, since there weren't any competitors to the US government for providing bailout money, the interest rate we use to judge whether it was "profitable" should be sky high.
What are you trying to prove, that it wasn't profitable? That the government's bank account was not a higher value higher after the bailout than it was before the bailout?
Because that's a fact, and not an opinion. You seem to be equating a lot of "is" with "should", and I'm not dealing at all in the "should". It is a fact of this universe that the US government made a profit off of the bailout, not mater how many links you provide (that don't provide a contrary point of view).
> What are you trying to prove, that it wasn't profitable?
I'm trying to tell you that your chosen definition of "profitable" is utterly meaningless in a discussion of economics, but you have completely closed your mind to this idea. You don't seem to understand inflation, interest rates, opportunity cost, or the difference between accounting profit and economic profit [1]. Therefore, I can't proceed with this conversation.
I asked a question because I was unsure, and you behaved like a prime ass. You will continue to get responses like mine as long as you try to push a viewpoint as hard as you've been trying to here.
I'm sorry you feel that way. You don't come off as unsure when you answer all your own questions and call these answers "undeniably true fact." But yes, I was more argumentative than I should have been. Best of luck to you.
Please see any [1] of [2] these [3] to understand why it isn't as simple as "Y - X > 0", considering things like where the repayments are coming from, comparing the nominal annualized return to Treasury bond rates, all the fraud that will never be accounted for, etc., etc. Even pro-bailout articles [4] have to include weasel phrases like "on a risk-adjusted basis, even [such and such proposed Y - X] isn’t that big a profit, given the huge downside the government had," speaking directly to my point of how it's hard to properly account for risk, which is what any other lender would have done. Arguably, since there weren't any competitors to the US government for providing bailout money, the interest rate we use to judge whether it was "profitable" should be sky high.
[1]: http://www.nationalreview.com/article/395822/overselling-tar...
[2]: http://www.huffingtonpost.com/2012/04/25/tarp-profit-a-myth_...
[3]: http://www.forbes.com/sites/halahtouryalai/2012/04/25/dont-b...
[4]: https://www.washingtonpost.com/business/economy/bailout-high...