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In your proof, doesn't i⋅(i+j) + j⋅(i+j) = (1+ij) + (ji+1) = 2 + ij + ji, not 2?

What am I missing? I think ij = -ji is an independent axiom.




It's dot products there, which are also distributive. So i⋅i + i⋅j + j⋅i + j⋅j = 1 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 2.

We got dot products from the fact that v^2 = v⋅v for any vector v (so in particular, i+j). Then dot products are linear so you can expand that out. So basically the proof compares using FOIL on geometric products to FOIL on dot products.

Note that `ij` is not a vector; it's a tensor (or "multivector" and in particular a "blade" in the GA lingo). The dot product reduction only applies to vectors from the original space. But i, j, and i+j are vectors.

For simplicity and practically this is all over real vector spaces. You can make similar definitions with other fields, but you have to be careful when working mod 2.

For simplicity I'm also using an orthonormal basis. You also need to be a bit more careful if working with e.g. special relativity where your timelike basis vector t has t⋅t=-1 (though you can see things still work).


The proof is supposed to be showing that ij = -ji. Not that both ij = ji = 0.

In this case, i and j are two dimensional units. So yes, ij is a bivector (unit scalar quantity of two dimension units), so ij does not equal zero.

I think the ij = -ij requires another axiom. Or another constraint on how the space operates which results in the same result.


I didn't show ij = ji = 0. I'm assuming i⋅j = j⋅i = 0 (an orthogonal basis), but i⋅j != ij and j⋅i != ji.

(i+j)^2 = (i+j)⋅(i+j) because v^2=v⋅v for any vector v. When you expand RHS, you get i⋅i + i⋅j + j⋅i + j⋅j = 1 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 2. When you expand the LHS (i+j)^2 as Clifford multiplication, you get 2 + ij + ji. Since RHS and LHS are equal, ij+ji=0.


Ah, thanks! I will have to go through those steps more carefully.

> Or another constraint on how the space operates which results in the same result.

I see that would be the orthonormality of i and j.




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